This paper tries to be an attempt to offer an answer to the problem of one small but significant difference between the Masoretic Text (MT) of Jer 31,32 (38,32 in the LXX) and its Ancient Greek translation. The question I will try to answer links to the end of this short passage: on which basis did render the Greek translator the וְאָנֹכִ֛י בָּעַ֥לְתִּי בָ֖ם (= and I espoused/mastered over them) with καὶ ἐγὼ ἠμέλησα αὐτῶν (= I abominated/neglected them)? Or with other words: what did he think or see that he has rendered the Hebrew text with the words that can be found in the LXX?